I'm curious
Sunday, March 19th, 2006 08:30 pmWhy do so many hobbit fic writers insist on using the Scottish word bairn, when Tolkien himself said that hobbit babies and children are called fauntlings or faunts? I can see digging up a word if he had never addressed the issue. (Though I'd try to find an English word, or at least one derived from the same sources, rather than something Scots. From what I understand, Tolkien didn't like Scots or Gaelic, just like he didn't like French, and took great care not even to use words that English had appropriated from them.) But in this case, he actually had a word, told us what it was, and people still don't use it.
Can someone explain this? Because it makes no sense to me at all.
Can someone explain this? Because it makes no sense to me at all.
no subject
Date: Monday, March 20th, 2006 07:21 am (UTC)no subject
Date: Tuesday, March 21st, 2006 05:44 pm (UTC)And the whole subject of language changing over time - well, sure it does. But the scope of the stories we're talking about usually span over the same 50-year period, more or less. Seeing that hobbits are members of a rural culture that moves at a MUCH slower pace than ours, there's precious little change the language is going to go through in that amount of time. And hobbits are especially not given to change, and suspicious of anything they haven't already known about for a couple of centuries, so I don't see changes occurring in their language that quickly.
The use of the word "bairn" in ROTK struck me as a slipup as well, since it goes against the thrust of Tolkien's writing. That's why I don't use it, and find it irksome when I see it. Guess I thought other writers would see it the same way, especially those that have read tons of Tolkien. If you've only read the novel, then I could see it. (Though why go out of one's way to use a Scots word when there's a perfectly good English word - baby - and no reason not to use it, I don't know.) But if you've read the Letters, where Tolkien actually specified it?